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ORIGINAL: bsjones84

Fortydays, you are correct in noticing the different teachings concerning the Law of Moses. There is a very specific reason for this though. Jesus came to fulfill the law. The reason He did this is because the law required a sacrifice, and Jesus came to be that sacrifice. So He literally came to fulfill the law. However, before Jesus was crucified, the law was yet unfulfilled. Therefore, the Jews, even Jesus, lived under the Law of Moses. Therefore, Jesus taught according to the Law of Moses as one having authority.

Fastforward to the crucifixion. When Jesus died, He cried with a loud voice. He said, "It is finished," and died. The reason He said it was finished is because He finished His work on earth, which was to atone for our sins and fulfill the Law of Moses. At that point, we were no longer under the Law of Moses, but under what Paul called the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ (Romans). At this point the earth shook and the veil of the temple was torn. The veil separated the congregation from the Holiest of Holies, the inner part of the temple where God dwelled. Only the high priest could go into the veil and be in the very presence of God. The high priest was the mediator and the common people were shut off from God. Well, Jesus being our High Priest, went into the Holiest of Holies and offered Himself a sacrifice and bridged that gap. Now we have access by faith through Jesus Christ. There was no longer a separation between the common people the God that required a need for a high priest to be our mediator. Our High Priest is now Jesus and He sits at God's right hand making intercession for us. The when the veil was torn, it was symbolic of God having come down to man (the veil was torn from top to bottom, not bottom to top) and making a way for us to have direct access to Him. Our direct access is through Jesus Christ through faith in His work on the cross.

So, that said, the Law of Moses has been fulfilled. We are no longer subject to the law's requirements of washings, ceremonies, feasts, and sacrifices. When Jesus died, He fulfilled them all once and for all. He is our perpetual sacrifice. We only need to have complete, unfeigned faith that what Jesus did on the cross truly did fulfill the law and atone for our wretchedness and bring us back into an honorable standing of sinless perfection before God. (Not because we are perfect, but because we are baptized into Christ's death when we repent and receive Christ; therefore, in God's eyes we died with Christ on the cross.)

So yes, Jesus taught the law because they were yet under the law. Paul taught that we do not need to keep the law because we were no longer under the law and the law was fulfilled by Jesus, bringing us under a new law, or covenant, the Law of the Spirit of Life in Christ. This law we keep by having faith in God's grace to forgive us of our sins through Jesus' death on the cross.

Consider another thing. God gave Abraham a promise. Abraham believed God. This belief in God was accounted as righteousness for Abraham. Abraham did nothing but believe what God promised Him, and God said that was enough for Abraham to be righteous. Well, Abraham lived long before the law was ever given. So if Abraham was accounted righteous by faith in God before the law ever was given, how much more will we be counted righteous by having faith in God after the law has been fulfilled.

This is taught in the book of Romans. Paul taught, in detail, how we are saved by faith in Jesus Christ and that the works of the law have no part of salvation. Everything I've said comes mostly from the book of Romans. So to answer your question, we are Christians. If we follow the doctrine Paul taught, we are Christians because Paul taught what he received from Christ. Hope this helps ya.

God bless,
Bub

quote:

ORIGINAL: Fortydays
My question has to do with us Christians that don't follow the same Mosaic Law that Jesus said he came to fulfill.

Jesus did in fact follow them as far as anyone can see. And he attested to the necessity of following them. OR did he do away with some of the old laws?

My other question IS....why did the Early Christians follow the teachings of Paul rather than more of the teachings of Jesus. Paul is who actively sought the Gentiles and who preached the abrogation of Jewish Law. Not as much of Jesus or am I wrong.

SO.... I ask....are us modern Christians---more Christian? Or more Paulists?

And was their an anti-Jewish agenda amongst the Early Christians?

I feel I am a Christian, but some people have called me a Paulist.

Please help me with this. I have spent some time in Google, but not as helpful as I thought.