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figmentPez -> RE: Can a Universalist be saved? (7/17/2007 6:53:26 PM)
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quote:
ORIGINAL: Him4all quote:
ORIGINAL: Fwanger why did He teach the lesson of the sheep and goats if everyone, whether they accept Him or not, will enter the kingdom? For your last question, read the text in context. This judgment isn't a judgment based upon 'knowing Jesus as savior'. It is a judgment based totally upon works....feeding and giving drink. Or as I said earlier walking as a chosen vessel in obedience. So, if this is simply a works based judgement, then why do those judged as sheep go to eternal life and those judged as goats go to eternal punishment? If this is merely about earthly status, why does Jesus talk about eternal life? Is it your claim that there is no eternal life for anyone, and only an age of life that has an end? quote:
ORIGINAL: Him4all He didn't speak of 'eternal' torment...that is a translation problem, and another study in and of itself. I have a Youngs Literal Translation which doesn't have the word aionios translated as eternal one time. The word aionios is a derivative of the word aion. And aion is translated as 'an age' in the NT. Grammatical laws forbid a derivative to have a force greater than the word they were derived from. For example and hour is 60 minutes long. The word hourly is a derivative of the noun hour. Hourly meetings for whatever length of time they last are still 60 minutes long. You can't say an aion is an age and then say aionios is eternity...it's grammaticaly indefensible. Aionios means something that pertains to the age. Your argument is that “aion” is always a finite period of time, and that because of “grammatical laws” that makes it impossible for “aionios” to mean anything more than a a finite period of time. Aside from the fact that the origin of words is etymology, not grammar, and that, etymologically speaking, there is no such law, trying to claim that aion always refers to a finite period of time is in itself absurd. Shall we look at what happens if we try and bring these false assumptions to bear on scripture as a whole? First, lets look at the dreadful things it does to our understanding of verses that use aionios: Romans 16:26 (NASB) but now is manifested, and by the Scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the eternal God, has been made known to all the nations, leading to obedience of faith; 2Corinthians 4:18 (NASB) while we look not at the things which are seen, but at the things which are not seen; for the things which are seen are temporal, but the things which are not seen are eternal. Titus 6:16 (NASB) who alone possesses immortality and dwells in unapproachable light; whom no man has seen or can see. To Him be honor and eternal dominion! Amen. Hebrews 13:20 (NASB) Now the God of peace, who brought up from the dead the great Shepherd of the sheep through the blood of the eternal covenant, even Jesus our Lord, 2Peter 1:11 (NASB) for in this way the entrance into the eternal kingdom of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ will be abundantly supplied to you. If we accept the claim that aionios cannot mean eternity, but must mean a finite period of time, some very unpleasant conclusions are forced on us concerning these passages. Under this unbiblical definition: Romans declares that God only exists for a time. 2Corinthians says that unseen things of God only last for a time. Titus claims that God’s dominion will come to an end. Hebrews says that the blood of Christ was not once and for all, but only for the finite age that the covenant lasts. 2Peter says that the kingdom of Jesus Christ will someday fall. And it only gets worse when we start looking at the use of aion in scripture: Matthew 6:13 (NASB) 13'And do not lead us into temptation, but deliver us from evil. [For Yours is the kingdom and the power and the glory forever. Amen.]' Matthew 6:13 (YLT) 'And do not lead us into temptation, but deliver us from evil. [For Thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, forever. Amen.]' Aion in these passages is forever. If forever is not really forever, does that mean that God’s kingdom, power and glory are only for a finite period of time? Even your favored literal translation says that this passage is literally talking about forever. How does that line up with your claim that aion only means a finite period of time? More words of Christ: Luke 1:33 (NASB) and He will reign over the house of Jacob forever; and His kingdom will have no end." Luke 1:33 (YLT) 33and he shall reign over the house of Jacob to the ages; and of his reign there shall be no end.' John 8:51 (NASB) "Truly, truly, I say to you, if anyone keeps My word he shall never see death." John 8:51 (YLT) ‘verily, verily, I say to you, If any one may keep my word, death he may not see – to the age.' John 10:28 (NASB) and I give eternal life to them, and they shall never perish; and no one shall snatch them out of My hand. John 10:28 (YLT) 28and life age-during I give to them, and they shall not perish – to the age, and no one shall pluck them out of my hand; John 11:26 (NASB) and everyone who lives and believes in Me shall never die. Do you believe this?" (YLT) 26and every one who is living and believing in me shall not die – to the age; What shall we conclude about these passages? Is there some limit on Christ’s promise of life? Some limit to Christ’s reign? If aion is always a finite period of time. Then is there a time when Christ’s kingdom will fall? Will the redeemed in Christ see death at the end of Christ’s kingdom? Is eternal life, not really eternal? For sake of space, I’ll skip the scripture quotations for the next batch. Do Romans 11:36, Phillippians 4:20, and 2Peter 3:18 mean that God’s glory lasts only for a time? 2Corinthians 9:9, finite righteousness? 2Corinthians 11:31, an end to God being blessed? 1Timothy 1:17, God is not eternally a king, only receiving glory and honor for a time? 2John 1:2, will truth only abide for at time? Here’s a real kicker. Prophecy from the OT, quoted in the NT. Hebrews 1:8 (NASB) But of the Son He says, "Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever, And the righteous scepter is the scepter of His kingdom. (YLT) and unto the Son: `Thy throne, O God, [is] to the age of the age; a scepter of righteousness [is] the scepter of thy reign; “Forever and ever” or according to Young’s “the age of the age”, a phrase we’ll get to again in just a moment. However, lets look at where the quote comes from: Psalm 45:6 (NASB) Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of uprightness is the scepter of Your kingdom. (YLT) 6Thy throne, O God, [is] age-during, and for ever, A sceptre of uprightness [Is] the sceptre of Thy kingdom. Oh, there is that frustrating “age-during” that you so horribly misunderstand, but followed by a “for ever”. Interesting, even the literal translation of the Hebrew says that God’s throne really is forever, but your claim is that aion cannot mean such a thing. However, other passages that use the same Hebrew word translated here as forever also indicate eternity, even in Young’s Isaiah 9:6 (YLT) 6For a Child hath been born to us, A Son hath been given to us, And the princely power is on his shoulder, And He doth call his name Wonderful, Counsellor, Mighty God, Father of Eternity, Prince of Peace. Isaiah 45:17 (YLT) 17Israel hath been saved in Jehovah, A salvation age-during! Ye are not ashamed nor confounded Unto the ages of eternity! Maybe God’s kingdom will end, and our salvation in Him come to an end? Is that your claim in trying to change the Biblical meaning of aion? And now we get back to the reason we’re debating over the meaning of these Greek words: Revelation 20:10 (NASB) 10And the devil who deceived them was thrown into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are also; and they will be tormented day and night forever and ever. (YLT) 10and the Devil, who is leading them astray, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where [are] the beast and the false prophet, and they shall be tormented day and night -- to the ages of the ages. There is that phrase again “forever and ever”, “to the ages of the ages”. The phrase you’re claiming doesn’t mean eternity, but only means a time. Shall we look at how it’s used elsewhere in the book of Revelation? Revelation 1:10 (YLT) 6and did make us kings and priests to his God and Father, to him [is] the glory and the power to the ages of the ages! Amen. Revelation 4:9 (YLT) 9and when the living creatures do give glory, and honour, and thanks, to Him who is sitting upon the throne, who is living to the ages of the ages, Revelation 5:13 (YLT) 13and every creature that is in the heaven, and in the earth, and under the earth, and the things that are upon the sea, and the all things in them, heard I saying, `To Him who is sitting upon the throne, and to the Lamb, [is] the blessing, and the honour, and the glory, and the might -- to the ages of the ages!' Revelation 11:15(YLT) 15And the seventh messenger did sound, and there came great voices in the heaven, saying, `The kingdoms of the world did become [those] of our Lord and of His Christ, and he shall reign to the ages of the ages!' Oh my, insisting that aion must mean a finite period of time really changes the meaning of these passages. Are you sure you want to insist that God’s power, glory, blessing, honor, reign, kingdom and, indeed, His very life, are merely transient? Are you sure you want to claim that the immortal God only lives for a time? I find your understanding of Biblical Greek to be not only illogical, but outright blasphemous.
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