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MrFribbles -> RE: Who is God referring to in Genesis? (5/7/2008 10:56:01 AM)
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quote:
You want a list? We have no wings, we are not full of eyes all around, we only have one face......... sounds kind of convincing for me. Assuming, of course, that the "image" language speaks of physical appearance. Personally, I do not believe that it does. If that were the case, God would be a hermaphrodite, since both man and woman are created in His image. Rather, I feel it deals with things which make us intrinsically different and "higher" than the animals. Things like our ability to reason, to be creative and appreciate beauty, and of course our ability to make moral decisions and be held accountable for them. quote:
That sounds a little flimsy to me... because you have to square it with David writing in Psalms "The Lord said to my lord...". That doesn't necessitate David having a knowledge of the trinity. Just because he believed the Messiah would be greater than he was does not mean he believed the Messiah would be God Himself, come in the flesh. Also, if such knowledge was so readily available to the Jews, why were they murderous with rage when Jesus made claims of deity? quote:
Considering that most conservative scholarship believes that the first five books of the Bible were written under prophetic revelation by Moses a great deal of time after it happened, I'm more than willing to believe that God, who knows that He is three in one, would recount the story accurately. And you're more than welcome to. It's certainly within the realm of viable possibility. However, I just don't see that "recounting the story accurately" here proves that this passage is a trinitarian proof-text. If God literally did say "us" before creating man (and I have absolutely no reason to believe that He did not), that still does not mean that the "us" refers to the members of the godhead. quote:
In fact, just to throw an interesting wrench into this discussion, one of the names of God (as already mentioned by Anisavta) is Elohim... anybody notice that that is a plural word? It is also one of the predominant names of God in the Old Testament. Why would the authors ascribe a plural name to God if they had no clue that He was triune in nature? Elohim was not a name used exclusively by the true God. Indeed, it was not even a title reserved solely for the divine and spiritual. Some human rulers were called Elohim. Angels are called Elohim. False gods and goddesses were called Elohim. The plural nature here, I believe, is used as a means of emphasis to describe the greatness (be in real, in God's case, or false, in false-god's case) of the Elohim being described. Basically, I do not believe the plurality of Elohim can be used as a solid defense for the trinity any more than the singular use of Jehova can be used as an attack against this essential doctrine.
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