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hammurabi -> Greek grammar/translation help on John 1:7. (7/14/2008 11:27:16 PM)
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If there's somewhere better to post this, please let me know. I was surprised not to find a Biblical languages folder. Anyways, I started studying Greek independently, using Paine's "Beginning Greek," and am having trouble with a section of John. The beginning was recent, so please excuse my perhaps incompetent grammar and questions. John I:7 is written: "οὗτος ἦλθεν εἰς μαρτυρίαν, ἵνα μαρτυρήσῃ περὶ τοῦ φωτός, ἵνα πάντες πιστεύσωσιν δι' αὐτοῦ." The NASB translates the passage as "He came as a witness, to testify about the Light, so that all might believe through him." My current working translation is as follows: "He came (for) to witness, in order to testify (witness) about (concerning) the light, in order that all (might) (will) trust (believe) through him." My translation is ugly, as is my knowledge of Greek. My question is as follows, after a brief explanation of the problem: "πάντες" is in the nominative plural, and I assume the implication is that, as the subject of the dependent clause, its implicit reference is "ἀνθρώπων" [man, "...the life was the light of man."] in John I:4, not "πάντα δι' αὐτοῦ ἐγένετο" ["All things through him came to be"; NASB: "All things came into being through Him"] in verse 3. "πιστεύσωσιν" [to trust, to believe (in)] is, the best I can tell, part of a clause where the subject is "πάντες," since it is the nominative form of "πᾶς," and the only substantive used as a subject. "αὐτοῦ" [him, "...trust through him"] is genitive, which means that δι' [cont. διά] should mean "through." What I cannot understand is where the notion of "may" or "might," which is the standardized translation in NASB and NIV, comes from. My probably syntactically, didactically, and stylistically eviscerating translation cannot - for the life of me - find a might, a may, any modal indicator. Of course, I am not up on my verbs, so perhaps that is the problem, but my book gives me the verb used, and a meaning, and I couldn't find a modal verb tense (of this kind, in this context) in an online search of Greek grammar. My reconstruction is "in order that all [gen. "to"/"for"] to trust through him." Where am I overlooking something more than the rudiments I need to hack and slash away at this passage? Can someone explain to me what, perhaps, the verb, or the genitive declension, is doing? Or is this idiomatic speech?
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