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neuronstatic -> RE: Women's role in the Home - One Stop Thread (9/24/2005 10:52:31 PM)
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Ephesians 5 verses 1-21 have historically been bound in one thought: "be imitators of God". While Ephesians 5 verses 22-33 have similarly been bound in one thought: "marriage like christ and the church".
In that first section, we have a clear distinction. That section is clearly addressed to all believers and is specifically addressing how we are to live in relation to God as being an imitator of God. So verses 1-21 describe our personal walk with Christ.
Now some people would assert that because verse 22 does not contain a main verb, that it is to be included as part of the previous thought and connected to verse 21. However, this connection is not found because it requires the participle uJpotassovmenoi (Jupotassomenoi, "submitting") in verse 21 to be the main verb for the section that follows verse 21.
Yet this participle is connected back to verse 18 as a "participle of result". In verse 18 we have the command to be filled with the spirit. Verse 21 then forms the link between the command and the result, with the Greek participle completing the thought in verse 21.
Now the switch from verse 21 to 22 is a change in subject, but not a complete break in thought. Many translator's notes provide the argument and basis to show that what I have stated is true. So completing the thought starting in verse 22, we are now receiving instructions that parallel the previous section. As the first section was about our submission to God, the second section is about the comparison of Christ and the church to the marriage relationship of the husband to the wife.
So the entire thought of submission continues unabated. The subject and specific instruction, which had been individuals submitting to God, now shift to the wife submitting to the husband in authority. Please this is not an equality argument, it is an authority argument.
So the second part of Ephesians 5 is clearly a description of the hierarchy of authority within the marriage using Christ and the church as the model.
If we are to do this correctly, and we let scripture interpret scripture, we must now include 1 Peter 3:1-7. Those verses are clear instruction for wives and husbands. In 1 Peter 3:1, we get immediately into the wife is in submission to the husband in authority.
Now to be certain that this is not itself misinterpreted, all we need do is look at 1 Peter 2:13-25, which is the discussion of submission to authorities. The meanings of the verbs used in verse 13 and 18 of 1 Peter 2 are clear in their context and the rendering of "be subject" comes directly from their use.
So then, in 1 Peter 3:1-7, we have a continuation of a similar thought on submission, but this time, it is concerning marriage. Again the verb use of "be subject" is clear in the context.
Now if this was all we had, then we could say that 1 Peter might need to be interpreted from an alternate, i.e. incorrect, view of Ephesians 5. However we have something else that amplifies this notion in 1 Corinthians 11:3 which is:
But I want you to know that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ.
The same Greek words translated "man" and "woman" can mean, as determined by context, "husband" and "wife" respectively. Such an approach is followed by the Amplified, ESV, NAB, TEV, NRSV, and NLT (with some variations). The NASB, NIV, and KJV use the more general "man" and "woman" without the contextual qualification of "husband" and "wife".
I personally, believe the context is the husband and wife and do not assert the general case of any "man" and any "woman".
Now let's add one more to the proof text in interpreting this verb dilemma in Ephesians 5:22. So turn to Genesis 3:16 which says:
To the woman he said, "I will greatly increase your pains in childbearing; with pain you will give birth to children. Your desire will be for your husband, and he will rule over you."
So now we are left with a single verb to clarify in Ephesians 5:21, which you have attempted to use as a connection between 5:21 and 5:22. However, I think the evidence from the given passages of scripture, that point clearly to the hierarchical relationship, significantly point to the "traditional" rendering of the "section break" between 5:21 and 5:22. This now leaves no way to connect 5:22 back to 5:21 which is be subject to one another.
Clearly, and I won't go into the detail here, we are to be subject one to another in our walk with Christ so that we may be perfected by each other, as iron sharpens iron. This is broadly applicable to all believers not just husbands and wives.
But, in 5:22, the wife subject to the husband, would not even make sense if 5:21 were to prevail. It should not have even been included if it was intended to say "the wife and the husband are subject to one another with no hierarchy". Indeed it would be redundant as we already received instruction to be subject to one another. So clearly, there is a change in context to include this specificity.
So then, as scripture interprets scripture, Ephesians 5:22 echoes the hierarchy of authority given in Genesis 3:16, 1 Peter 3:1-7, and 1 Corinthians 11:3.
The conclusion of such blessed attitudes of submission, respect, honor, and self sacrificing love is that a mystery happens, two become as one - as Christ and the church are one. This is the desire of Christ and His Church/Bride and should be the desire of husbands and wives with one another. And as our desire is to submit to Christ, so should the desire of the wife be to submit to her husband. This is the model. This is the clear instruction of scripture.
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