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lecoop -> RE: Gift of Tongues - One Stop Thread (1/13/2006 10:46:17 PM)
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There was several mentions of something here that I want to comment on. First, we know that it is God's will that all come to salvation. He is not willing that any should perish. Correct? So God's will is for all to come and accept Jesus as savior. Now, if someone (or millions of someones) have knowledge of salvation, i.e. they know something about it, that Jesus died for them, but they believe that if God wanted them saved, then God would save them - but they made no effort to seek God out or no effort to repent, and left it all up to God, how many with this attitude would ever become born again? We all know the answer is zip, none! Why? Because God does not work this way. He gave every human a free will, and expects us to use it. The Holy Spirit can tug at someone to get saved, but until they make some effort towards God, nothing will happen, except their heart will grow slightly harder. Therefore, why would people make such a statement on this thread, that if God wanted them to have something, God would just do it. Listen: it seldom or ever happens that way. Paul said salvation comes through belief in our heart and confession with our mouth. In fact, this is the way all things are received from God. Never count on God just giving you something because it is his will for you to have it. He has already given us ALL THINGS that relate to life and Godliness. However, "given" and "possession" are two different things. God has given us all things, but we have not received all things. Amsent said quote:
I believe there is a question that hasn't been asked before, at least on this forum. Why were the Corinthians speaking in tongues? And if this was under the lead of the Holy Spirit, why would Paul be rebuking them for it's usage. Just some food for thought since the same thing is going on here in this discussion. Anyone care to take a stab at it because the passages from Corinthians is used as a backer for tongues. First, why were the Corinthians speaking in tongues? This is easy. Because they had received the baptism with the HS, and the tongues came as icing on the cake, so to speak. So they spoke in tongues because they could. Now, having said that - they also spoke in tongues because it is so enjoyable. Peter said that this was the "rest." It is the rivers of living water that flow out. It edifies and frankly, feels good. When they ran out of prayers in their learned language, they just continued in tongues. Yes, probably in every case, the HS was giving the utterance. Please look closely at these verses: quote:
1 Cor 12 4 Now there are diversities of gifts, but the same Spirit. 5 And there are differences of administrations, but the same Lord. 6 And there are diversities of operations, but it is the same God which worketh all in all. Notice that there are "gifts" and "administrations," and "operations." The "gifts" are controled by the Holy Spirit; the administrations are under the control of the Lord Jesus, and the "operations" are under the control of God the Father. I will leave it up to someone else to decide which of the nine gifts are called administrations and operations. All I will say is that the three gifts to speak supernaturally are under the control of the HS. I.E., Tongues, interpretation of tongues, and prophecy, and that these three are sort of under our will: i.e. whenever we choose to do it, the Holy Spirit backs us up. We cannot say this about the gifts to act supernaturally, or know supernaturally. For these, we just have to wait for God to do it. for instance, we cannot just "turn on" the gift of knowledge of the gift of wisdom. Now, what does this mean? It means first off, that anyone can use these three gifts to speak supernaturally. They are not limited to certain people. Now, before you shout me down, follow along. No, all people may not give a message in tongues, but God has given to all the pontential to have a prayer language through the baptism with the HS. What about prophecy? Can all prophecy? Paul said, "But if all prophesy;" and "For ye may all prophesy one by one." Did I read that wrong? Paul said that we all may prophecy! This part, I cannot explain, but I know it is true. Whenever I choose to speak in tongues, the HS is always ready to give the utterance, even if it is during a sermon, and the wrong time to speak in tongues! However, I can pray in tongues to myself at this time and no one around me knows. So why were the Corinthians speaking in tongues? Because the HS was giving them utterance. But they did not have any knowledge about the purposes and intents of the HS on how to use the tongues that they had been given. Paul gives them correction and instruction. Many churches today need correction and instruction also. Beginners that just have received the baptism with the HS, and just started speaking in tongues need teaching on how to use them. Paul was not rebuking them for speaking in tongues, else he would have told them to quit. He was giving them correction on how and when to use them. Coop
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