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psende -> RE: Gift of Tongues - One Stop Thread (1/22/2006 4:54:19 PM)
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Morningstar, This is for you. Believe me, it was a labor of love. quote:
Is the modern tongue movement even Biblical? It seems to fit the criteria – even to the point of being abused by some; as in Corinth. quote:
Is it even for today? It is for the Church, a tool, given by God. quote:
If it is for today, Why did it start up again? Why was it missing from the church for almost to millennia? You got me. I would guess that tongues, along with prophecy fell out of favor due to abuse. Of course, as Ben Quebec pointed out, the case may actually be that they didn’t fully die out. I don’t think we”ll ever know, for sure. quote:
Why did it start up in a small town in Kansas? Why not? I understand that God has begun other works in small towns, why not one in Kansas? quote:
What about the passages of Mark 16:9-20? These verses do not appear in the oldest and most reliable manuscripts that are available. Does this mean that these verses were most likely added by some scribe? I’ll leave that to the scholars. I believe the NIV and others have those verses as well as the story of the woman caught in adultery set aside for just that reason (there may be others I’im not aware of.). There a few other passages that conservative scholars wonder about. Nevertheless, sermons are still being preached on both with good effect. quote:
What about verse 1 Cor 13:8 where it says the gift of tongues will be stilled? Well, I guess that becomes a matter of interpretation, doesn’t it? BenQuebec has addressed this question rather nicely in post #82. quote:
What about verses 1 Cor 14:6-13 where it says in the church that tongues without interpretation is forbidden? Paul is speaking of the uselessness of giving a public message in tongues, with no interpretation, in the general assembly. He likens it to a foreigner bringing a message in his native language; useless in all ways. quote:
What about verses 1 Cor 14:14-17 where is says praying in tongue is condemned because the mind is unfruitful? Again, this is speaking of public prayer. We have all been in a prayer meeting. When someone prays, they are in essence, praying for the group. As they pray, when someone is reminded or in agreement with the prayer, an “amen” or “yes Lord” is sounded. However, if that person is praying in tongues, how could we agree? Paul is not “condemning” praying in tongues, (v39) but is directing in proper use. quote:
What about verses 1 Cor 14:26-28 where it limits the number to speak tongues in the church and that there must be interpretation? Same answer as I Cor 14:6-13. quote:
What about verse 1 Cor 14:5 where it says prophesy is better than tongues? So why the emphasis on tongues if it the least important of the gifts? The “greater” gift, IMO, is the one that is useful for the moment. Again, here, Paul is speaking proper order in the assembly. A word understood is of use. A word not understood is valueless unless, by some means – such as interpretation – it becomes understood. It is simply that if one feels he must address the assembly, it should be done for the good of the assembly. quote:
Charismatics claim that tongues are universally available to all. But what about 1 Cor 12 which says that everyone will receive different gifts? Also, why did Paul ask in 1 Cor 12:30 "Do all speak in tongues?" In I Cor 12:7, Paul speaks of “manifestations of the Spirit for the common good.” He is addressing the proper use of gifts in the as ministering tools for the Body of Christ. Not all will be used of God in the same way. Thus, when it comes to ministering to the Body, not all will speak in tongues, not all will teach, not all will advise. We are to recognize this and understand that, since we each have our place and purpose, no one better than the next person. The universality of tongues suggests itself in Acts 2:4, where they all, “began to speak in other tongues . . .;” in Acts 8, where Simon the sorcerer sought the power evidenced by the Peter and John; in Acts 10, at Cornelius’ home; and in Acts 19:6, John’s followers. It could also be deduced that a very large number of the Corinthians used tongues, albeit sometimes inappropriately. This gift that, in Acts, came to believers as they were “filled with the Holy Spirit,” has a different purpose than that gift which addresses the assembly, though it is of the same essence. This is sometimes referred to as the “prayer language,” and its use is for personal prayer; a tool given by the Spirit to edify and build-up the individual Christian. (On a personal note, I look inward and, seeing a bit of how I’m made (believe me; I’m nothing special) tend to think, “It must be for everyone!” quote:
Charismatics claim that there is a second blessing, or a second Spirit baptism. But 1 Cor 12:13 says we were all baptized by the Holy Spirit into the body of Christ. Eph 5:18 commands us, "be filled with the spirit." So, it is understood that a second filling of the Holy Spirit is a Scriptural, but where is the command for a second Spirit baptism? Compare I Cor 12:13 with Luke 3:16. The Spirit baptizes us into the Body of Christ (I Cor 12:13) while it is Jesus who baptizes with the “Holy Spirit and fire,” (Luke 3:16). Each of these members of the Godhead is doing a different work in the believer. quote:
Charismatics claim tongues is a valid prayer language. If we look at the context of the 1 Corinthians 14, these passages refer to the misuse of tongues. 1 Cor 14:15 goes on to say, "I will pray with my spirit, but I will also pray with my mind," stressing one's need to be aware of what one is saying in prayer as well as being led by the Holy Spirit. And if we also look at Eph 6:18 it says, "And pray in the Spirit on all occasions with all kinds of prayers and requests. With this in mind, be alert and always keep on praying for all the saints." So if this prayer language is understood as praying in the Spirit, and it is understood by no one, not even the speaker, then how can that person have understanding of what they are even praying for? So if this prayer language = praying in the Spirit, then do these two passages (1 Cor 14:15 and Eph 6:18) imply that praying in a known language is worthless? So how can we then interpret from Scripture that praying in tongues is the only way to pray in the Spirit? Looking at the context of I Cor 14, I Cor 14:15 implies that prayers in tongues and prayers with the mind are both valid forms of prayer in the appropriate setting. Prayers with the mind are always valid; prayers with the sprit have their place. In our private prayer, the Spirit directs our hearts in prayer whether in the Spirit or the mind. There are stories that I’m sure most here have heard, about someone waking in the night with some person on their heart and then praying until the burden was lifted; later discovering that the person God had placed on their heart had been in dire circumstances at the time they were praying. Such happenings occur with both types of prayer. The Holy Spirit is directing both. I can, however, have a prayer list (a good thing, by the way) and quickly, with my understanding, run through the list rote style. I’m not sure a prayer such as that is of much use, although I’m not sure that it isn’t. As far as Eph 6:18-19, the is ample room there to include the use and viability of both forms of prayer. quote:
We can see in 1 Cor 14:1-40 that tongues were misused in the church at Corinth, as Paul rebuked the Corinthians for this apparent misuse of the gift of tongues. Paul also gives instructions on the proper use of the gift of tongues. So how is it then that the modern tongue movement, in most cases, disregards these instructions of orderly worship? Is the modern tongues movement a repeat of what happened at Corinth? There is no doubt that abuses have occurred, but what I think you are getting at is the common scenario, during a time of praise and worship, in which folks – seemingly everyone – will pray and sing “in the spirit.” During this time, there is no message being presented to the assembly. Everyone is offering praise and prayer in unison and all that is being spoken or sung, whether with the mind or spirit, is directed only to God who has very little trouble hearing and deciphering all of it. If a person has a message to present to the Body, whether by way of tongues and interpretation or prophecy, there will be a time to do so. Most meetings I have been to carry this out in a very orderly fashion, but I don’t doubt, that to an outsider, especially one from a very traditional and conservative background, this kind of service may appear disorderly. quote:
Charismatics teach that anyone who uses this prayer language that they are doing this for their own benefit, yet the Bible says spiritual gifts were given to edify others. So in order for the gift of tongues to edify the church, then interpretation must be present whenever tongues were spoken in the church, as we can understand this by the commandment in 1 Cor 14:5. We can also find that Paul says in 1 Cor 10:24 that, "Nobody should seek his own good, but the good of others." So if this "prayer language" or speaking in tongues is suppose to be valid for today, then why does it to occur without interpretation in the church setting? In the Church setting, during an aforementioned time of praise and worship, folks are speaking to God, and Him alone (14:2). Though this is often done out loud and in unison, there is no message directed to the Body, and is in no way an interruption of anything else happening at the time. Each person is, in his own and personal way, offering praises to the One to whom praise is due. quote:
In 1 Cor 13, Paul speaks of the 'tongues of angels', but he uses in such a way that it is a grand overstatement which he sets up, then rips down by saying that such extravagance is utterly worthless without love. Where else in Scripture are we told about an angelic language or even that men are able to speak in an angelic tongue? Likewise, where in Scripture does is say that angels spoke to man in some foreign babble? So how can we say that this "prayer language" is "tongues of angles"? I don’t know anyone who claims to be speaking “angel language,” (though I’ve heard tongues referred to as a “heavenly language”) but I Cor 13 1 certainly opens up the possibility that the unknown language spoken by someone could be angelic just as v3 opens the possibility that someone could sell all their possessions to feed the poor. After all, God who gave language to man, also gave language to angels. I don’t know if they are all that different and I’m sure it makes no difference what language is being spoken. quote:
How do we explain the many non-charismatic churches that lack this second blessing of the Holy Spirit? If you don’t believe it is necessary or appropriate, why would you have it? quote:
Why is the Holy Spirit only working thru charismatic churches? I understand there are some who believe this. I personally know of no one who does, however. This mind-set is pretty common no matter what denomination you are speaking of, isn’t it? God moves through the whole Body of Christ to accomplish His purposes. quote:
How do we explain why someone with an utterly deep and infectious love for the Lord, the lack of this second Spirit baptism or the lack of the ability to speak or pray in tongues? One thing about this “Spirit baptism” is that is in no way signifies having “arrived.” It opens a new dimension (probably a misleading term, but I can’t think of a more accurate term at the moment) in Christ. In my experience, it was much akin to experience of being “born again” and like that experience of salvation, the only criteria was to ask and receive. quote:
Where are we commanded to seek a second Spirit baptism? No “command.” Luke 11:13, Acts 19:1-9. quote:
Where are we instructed on how to speak or pray in tongues? We aren’t. It is the Holy Spirit’s doing. We have to avail ourselves to Him, however. He usually doesn’t just drop it on us, although occasionally, I’ve heard, He does. quote:
Where are we instructed to have tarry meetings? We aren’t. This practice is taken from the example of the Upper Room Bunch, who “tarried” in Jerusalem until the day of Pentecost, “continually devoting themselves to prayer.” Not a bad example. quote:
How do we explain Christians "coaching" other believers on how to speak or pray in tongues? Where are we instructed to “practice’ tongues? We aren’t. Although I have no problem with explaining the concept of “offering your voice to God and letting Him take over,” I think that coaching the sounding of words is misleading and should not be done. The Holy Spirit is able to give utterance. Our part is to allow Him to do so. quote:
In this current day of religious confusion, we certainly can find "For the time will come when men will not put up with sound doctrine. Instead, to suit their own desires, they will gather around them a great number of teachers to say what their itching ears want to hear. They will turn their ears away from the truth and turn aside to myths." (2 Timothy 4:3-4). So even according to God's word, many traditional religious beliefs aren't even based on sound biblical truth. Is the charismatic movement an example of this passage? While there are certainly elements of charismaticism that fall into the “itching ears” catagory, the majority of charismatic congregations preach a message of holy living and evangelism. Keep in mind that there are charismatic believers in nearly every denomination. The only addition to the regular denominational beliefs would be the Spirit Baptism and elements associated with it. quote:
So how do we find the truth? Really, the Holy Spirit is the only one who can lead us into truth. Sometimes He just “shows” us, but other times, He leads us through struggles – oftentimes of our own making – in order to prepare us for His work. He leads us with His Word; “Thy word is a lamp to my feet and a light to my path. Forever, O Lord, thy Word is settled in heaven. . . . it is my meditation all the day.”(Ps 119:105,89,97). He will also lead in other ways, mush as He led Paul to Macedonia. God is not limited, but He will not go against His word – our compass. quote:
Are we to base Scripture on experiences or base experiences on Scripture? I think a combination of both. Experience can give us insight on what scripture is speaking of. Consider the “Peace that passes understanding.” Until you’ve experienced it, you don’t really understand it. However, in order to have that kind of peace, we must be willing to throw off our anxiety as we thankfully present our prayers and supplications to the God of peace (Phi 4:6-7). On the other hand, it would be wrong to say that you could find that “peace” through exercise because exercise had made you “peaceful.” quote:
Are we to make assumptions about Scripture or are we to “prove all things” as God's word instructs us? Is there only one interpretation for each passage of Scripture, or is there more than one interpretation for each passage of Scripture? Is there one interpretation of Scripture with many applications? Perhaps the only assumption we should make is that though flower and grass fade, “the word of God abides forever.” Though I’m sure we all assume things we shouldn’t, every Christian should strive be an unashamed workman who “rightly divides the word of truth” God is not so small that He can’t apply His Word in unlikely situations. An acquaintance was telling me about an incident that happened while he was personally building his rather unorthodox house. One day, this extremely frustrated, first-time builder was in his morning devotions. As he read Ps 127:1 (“Unless the Lord builds a house, they labor in vain who build it”) the Holy Spirit showed him that he was to include God in every aspect of his building plans. As he dis so, things smoothed out and frustrations left. The finished product became a meeting place for a “house church” for many years. Note, though, that scripture was not bent or twisted in any way. God used this verse to get the man’s attention and shape his heart. quote:
So how do we interpret the bible? Are we to interpret it literally? Yes, where possible. quote:
Are we to interpret it figuratively? Yes, where a literal translation can make no sense. quote:
Are we to interpret it as a historical document? Yes, where it addresses history. quote:
Are we to make assumptions about what it says? We are to assume God exists and that is God’s Word. quote:
If the Bible is inerrant, infallible, internally absolutely consistent, and unchangeable - then why so many apparent and divisive contradictions of how it is to be interpreted? Flesh. Everyone comes with a unique point of view as well as baggage, known and unknown, that shapes our view of scripture. Then, of course is the fact that everyone wants to be “right.” Paul addresses this attitude in Romans 14, and though he is speaking of food and drink and holy days, I think it fits well here. Verse 5: “Let each man be fully convinced in his own mind;” Verse 7: “For not one of us lives for himself, and not one dies for himself; Verse 10 “. . .why do you regard your brother with contempt? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of God,” and finally, verse 12: “So then, each one of us shall give account of himself to God. God love and acceptance runs wide and deep. So should ours. I think it is also likely that God uses this diversity of opinion to build and strengthen His Body even while the enemy is attempting to destroy. quote:
The Bereans should be our example here! We need to receive the teachings with all readiness and without prejudice, but then we must search the Scriptures daily to find out if these teachings are true or false (Acts 17:11). Absolutely. I tell you gang. This post has taken a while. Not only am I a slow thinker, I’m an even slower typist.
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